MadCat360
Forum Addict
It's not a blind assumption. If you take the examples of Japan and mexico, you could almost skew it either way.
If you can use either method to explain the data in a nearly equally plausible manner, you have no explanation.
Here are studies that agree with the "no effect" stance.
http://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/10.1111/j.1745-9133.2003.tb00002.x/abstract
(Kinda informal but good data)http://thisainthell.us/blog/wp-content/uploads/2012/06/Brady_Score_Article_20120622.pdf
http://www.cato.org/pubs/journal/cj26n1/cj26n1-6.pdf
http://jpfo.org/pdf03/gun-control-myths-92.pdf
Of course, in some cases limiting guns impact gun-related crime. But as the overall rates of violence are not discussed, we cannot imply any effect on the total violent crime rate.
http://bjp.rcpsych.org/content/191/3/253.full
http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC1730132/pdf/v010p00280.pdf
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